Every bijection yields an inverse function
From Maths
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Statement
Let [ilmath]X[/ilmath] and [ilmath]Y[/ilmath] be sets and suppose [ilmath]f:X\rightarrow Y[/ilmath] is a map between them, and that it is a bijective map. Then there exists a unique function:
 [ilmath]f^{1}:Y\rightarrow X[/ilmath] such that [ilmath]f^{1}(y)=x\iff f(x)=y[/ilmath]
Proof
Grade: E
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References
