If the composition of two functions is a bijection then the initial map is injective and the latter map is surjective
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Unimportant but useful theorem, good to factor out.
- It has been done somewhere, sometime, but I cannot remember where!
Statement
Let X, Y and Z be sets. Let f:X→Y and g:Y→Z be maps. Suppose that (g∘f):X→Z is a bijection. Then[1]:
- f:X→Y is an injection, and
- g:Y→Z is a surjection
In the title the initial map refers to f, as it is applied first; the latter map is g as it is applied second.
Proof
We wish to show:
- ∀x,x′∈X[f(x)=f(x′)⟹x=x′] - the definition of injectivity
- ∀z∈Z∃y∈Y[g(y)=z] - the definition of surjectivity
f is an injection
- Let x,x′∈X be given
- Suppose f(x)≠f(x′) - then by the nature of logical implication we do not care whether or not the RHS is true or false, we're done
- Suppose f(x)=f(x′) - we must show that in this case: x=x′
- Suppose x≠x′ (we will reach a contradiction)
- This is a contradiction, we cannot have both g(f(x))≠g(f(x′)) and g(f(x))=g(f(x′))!
- So we must have x=x′
- In either case the implication holds.
This completes the proof that f is injective.
g is a surjection
- Let z∈Z be given. We must show ∃y∈Y[g(y)=z]
- As g∘f is a bijection we know that: ∀z′∈Z∃x∈X[(g∘f)(x)=z′]
- Let z′:=z, now ∃x∈X[g(f(x))=z]
- Choose y:=f(x)
- Now y∈Y, as required and g(y)=g(f(x))=z
- So g(y)=z as required.
- Choose y:=f(x)
- Let z′:=z, now ∃x∈X[g(f(x))=z]
- As g∘f is a bijection we know that: ∀z′∈Z∃x∈X[(g∘f)(x)=z′]
- Since z∈Z was arbitrary we have shown it for all, as required.
References