Factoring a function through the projection of an equivalence relation induced by that function yields an injection

From Maths
Revision as of 20:24, 9 October 2016 by Alec (Talk | contribs)

(diff) ← Older revision | Latest revision (diff) | Newer revision → (diff)
Jump to: navigation, search
Stub grade: A*
This page is a stub
This page is a stub, so it contains little or minimal information and is on a to-do list for being expanded.The message provided is:
Flesh out and demote

Statement

Commutative diagram showing the situation
Let X and Y be sets, let f:XY be any function between them, and let ∼⊆X×X denote the equivalence relation induced by the function f, recall that means:
  • x,xX[xxf(x)=f(x)]

Then we claim we can factor[Note 1] f:XY through π:XX[Note 2] to yield a unique injective map[1]:

  • ˜f:XY

Furthermore, if f:XY is surjective then ˜f:XY is not only injective but surjective to, that is: ˜f:XY is a bijection[Note 3].

Applications

Topology:

Proof

Outline of proof method

  1. We must check the set up satisfies the requirements of the passing-to-the-quotient theorem (to yield ˜f:XY).
  2. We apply the theorem to get ˜f:XY.
  3. Next we must show ˜f:XY is injective

Proof body

Grade: D
This page requires one or more proofs to be filled in, it is on a to-do list for being expanded with them.
Please note that this does not mean the content is unreliable. Unless there are any caveats mentioned below the statement comes from a reliable source. As always, Warnings and limitations will be clearly shown and possibly highlighted if very important (see template:Caution et al).
The message provided is:
Part 3 was the only non-trivial part. It is obvious that we can factor f through π, in fact: Oh just FYI there's a commented out note and a requires-proof template at the top of the ==proof== heading, remove that later!

Step 3

We wish to show that ˜f:XY is injective, ie: a,bX[˜f(a)=˜f(b)a=b]

  • Let a,bX be given.
    • Suppose ˜f(a)˜f(b) then by the nature of logical implication we do not care whether or not a=b, either way it is true, we're done in this case.
    • Suppose ˜f(a)=˜f(b), by the nature of logical implication we now require this leads to a=b
      • By the surjectivity of π:XX we see:
        • xX[π(x)=a] and yX[π(y)=b]
          • Note that ˜f(a)=˜f(π(x)) and ˜f(b)=˜f(π(y)), also by assumption we have ˜f(a)=˜f(π(x))=˜f(π(y))=˜f(b)
          • Notice also that f(x)=˜f(π(x)) and f(y)=˜f(π(y)) (this is the whole point of ˜f)
            • So we see f(x)=˜f(a)=˜f(π(x))=˜f(π(y))=˜f(b)=f(y), or importantly:
              • f(x)=f(y)
            • Recall that xyf(x)=f(y), so now we know xy
          • An elementary property of π:XX is that if xy then π(x)=π(y)[Note 4][Note 5]
            • Explicitly, notice we have: π(x)=π(y)
          • Recall that a=π(x) and b=π(y) by definition of x and y, so:
            • a=π(x)=π(y)=b or more simply: a=b
      • We have shown that supposing f(a)=f(b) is given then a=b
    • Both cases have been evaluated and the implication holds for both
  • Since a,bX were arbitrary we have shown this for all a,bX

See also

Notes

  1. Jump up AKA: passing to the quotient
  2. Jump up the canonical projection of the equivalence relation, given by π:x[x] where [x] denotes the equivalence class containing x
  3. Jump up See "If a surjective function is factored through the canonical projection of the equivalence relation induced by that function then the yielded function is a bijection" for details
  4. Jump up

    TODO: Link to statement, this ought to be mentioned somewhere explicit on this site!


  5. Jump up

    TODO: This can be strengthened to surely!


References

  1. Jump up File:MondTop2016ex1.pdf