Factoring a function through the projection of an equivalence relation induced by that function yields an injection
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[hide]Statement
Let X and Y be sets, let f:X→Y be any function between them, and let ∼⊆X×X denote the equivalence relation induced by the function f, recall that means:- ∀x,x′∈X[x∼x′⟺f(x)=f(x′)]
Then we claim we can factor[Note 1] f:X→Y through π:X→X∼[Note 2] to yield a unique injective map[1]:
- ˜f:X∼→Y
Furthermore, if f:X→Y is surjective then ˜f:X∼→Y is not only injective but surjective to, that is: ˜f:X∼→Y is a bijection[Note 3].
Applications
Topology:
- If f:X→Y is a continuous map then factoring it through the projection of the equivalence relation it induces yields a continuous injection - topological version of this theorem almost exactly. We can extend this slightly in the case f:X→Y is surjective:
- If f:X→Y is continuous and surjective then factoring it through the canonical projection of the equivalence relation it induces yields a continuous bijection - this is an extension of the previous statement, recall that when we take a surjection and apply passing-to-the-quotient we get surjection, we know from above it's injective. So now it's bijective
Proof
Outline of proof method
- We must check the set up satisfies the requirements of the passing-to-the-quotient theorem (to yield ˜f:X∼→Y).
- We apply the theorem to get ˜f:X∼→Y.
- Next we must show ˜f:X∼→Y is injective
Proof body
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Part 3 was the only non-trivial part. It is obvious that we can factor f through π, in fact:
- To do so requires that "f be constant on the fibres of π", ie:
- ∀x,y∈X[π(x)=π(y)⟹f(x)=f(y)] (see Equivalent conditions to being constant on the fibres of a map)
- But if π(x)=π(y) then x∼y and by definition x∼y⟺f(x)=f(y)! Trivial!
- ∀x,y∈X[π(x)=π(y)⟹f(x)=f(y)] (see Equivalent conditions to being constant on the fibres of a map)
Step 3
We wish to show that ˜f:X∼→Y is injective, ie: ∀a,b∈X∼[˜f(a)=˜f(b)⟹a=b]
- Let a,b∈X∼ be given.
- Suppose ˜f(a)≠˜f(b) then by the nature of logical implication we do not care whether or not a=b, either way it is true, we're done in this case.
- Suppose ˜f(a)=˜f(b), by the nature of logical implication we now require this leads to a=b
- By the surjectivity of π:X→X∼ we see:
- ∃x∈X[π(x)=a] and ∃y∈X[π(y)=b]
- Note that ˜f(a)=˜f(π(x)) and ˜f(b)=˜f(π(y)), also by assumption we have ˜f(a)=˜f(π(x))=˜f(π(y))=˜f(b)
- Notice also that f(x)=˜f(π(x)) and f(y)=˜f(π(y)) (this is the whole point of ˜f)
- So we see f(x)=˜f(a)=˜f(π(x))=˜f(π(y))=˜f(b)=f(y), or importantly:
- f(x)=f(y)
- Recall that x∼y⟺f(x)=f(y), so now we know x∼y
- So we see f(x)=˜f(a)=˜f(π(x))=˜f(π(y))=˜f(b)=f(y), or importantly:
- An elementary property of π:X→X∼ is that if x∼y then π(x)=π(y)[Note 4][Note 5]
- Explicitly, notice we have: π(x)=π(y)
- Recall that a=π(x) and b=π(y) by definition of x and y, so:
- a=π(x)=π(y)=b or more simply: a=b
- ∃x∈X[π(x)=a] and ∃y∈X[π(y)=b]
- We have shown that supposing f(a)=f(b) is given then a=b
- By the surjectivity of π:X→X∼ we see:
- Both cases have been evaluated and the implication holds for both
- Since a,b∈X∼ were arbitrary we have shown this for all a,b∈X∼
See also
- If a surjective function is factored through the canonical projection of the equivalence relation induced by that function then the yielded function is a bijection
- Factoring a continuous map through the projection of an equivalence relation induced by that map yields an injective continuous map
Notes
- Jump up ↑ AKA: passing to the quotient
- Jump up ↑ the canonical projection of the equivalence relation, given by π:x↦[x] where [x] denotes the equivalence class containing x
- Jump up ↑ See "If a surjective function is factored through the canonical projection of the equivalence relation induced by that function then the yielded function is a bijection" for details
- Jump up ↑
TODO: Link to statement, this ought to be mentioned somewhere explicit on this site!
- Jump up ↑
TODO: This can be strengthened to ⟺ surely!
References
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